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MCQ 1060 Questions | Human Tooth | Tooth Enamel

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MCQ Questions Preliminary examination All of these questions are based on what people remembered after exams SO IT CAN NOT BERELIED ON 100% but it is the only way to get an idea about the subjects, matters and topics you would be asked about. Please add whatever you can after the exam ends and keep this sample in the hands of any who is sitting the exam. By the way it took me about 4 months to get this organised the way it is now. THANKS to all who have contributed to this and to all who will. H
   1 MCQ Questions Preliminary examination  All of these questions are based on what people remembered after exams SO IT CAN NOT BERELIEDON 100% but it is the only way to get an idea about the subjects, matters and topics you would beasked about. Please add whatever you can after the exam ends and keep this sample in thehands of any who is sitting the exam. By the way it took me about 4 months to get this organisedthe way it is now.THANKS to all who have contributed to this and to all who will.Hadi 1.   For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to, A.   Avoid buccal pulp hornB.   Avoid lingual pulp hornC.   Remove unsupported enamelD.   Conserve lingual dentine 2.   For an amalgam Restoration of weakened cusp you should, A.   reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistanceB.   reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cuspC.   reduce 2mm for retention form 3.   Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should, A.   Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acidB.   Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anythingC.   Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly 4.   Which of the following statement about the defective margins of amalgam    restoration is true? A.   The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay. 5.   The retention Pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed, A.   Parallel to the outer wallB.   Parallel to the long axis of tooth 6.   The most common cause of failure of the IDN “Inferior Dental Nerve” block is, A.   Injecting too lowB.   Injecting too high 7.   Which one of the following are not used in water fluoridation: A.   SnF2B.   1.23% APFC.   H2SiF2D.   CaSiF2E.   8% Stannous fluoride 8.   The best way to clean cavity before the placement of GIC is, A.   H2O2B.   Phosphoric AcidC.   Polyacrylic acid   2 9.   The most mineralised part of dentine is, A.   Peritubular dentine 10.    A 45 year old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and oedema of theupper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had the swelling, pain or dentalcomplaints. Examination shows several deep silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical areaof rarefaction. The patient’s temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health. The condition is: A.   Acute periapical abscessB.   Angioneurotic oedemaC.   Infectious mononucleosisD.   Acute maxillary sinusitisE.   Acute apical periodontitis 11.   Internal resorption is, A.   Radiolucency over unaltered canalB.   Usually in a response to traumaC.   Radiopacity over unaltered canal 12.   On replantation of an avulsed tooth could see, A.   Surface resorption, external resorptionB.   Internal resorptionC.   Inflammatory resorptionD.   Replacement resorptionE.   A, C and DF.   All of the above 13.   The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make in 0.5mm away   from pulp is, A.   20%B.   50% 14.   The junction between primary and secondary dentine is, A.   A reversal lineB.   Sharp curvatureC.   A resting lineD.   A reduction in the number of tubules 15.   What is the correct sequence of events A.   Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation thenenamel formation.B.   Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of enamelepithelium.C.   Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamelformation.D.   Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, enamel formation then dentinformation. 16.   What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries? A.   Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentineB.   Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis.C.   Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation.   3 17.   The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres? A.   Afferent & sympathetic 18.   In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve   towards? A.   Facial / buccal/B.   LingualC.   MesialD.   Distal 19.   What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture? A.   Perio abscess like appearanceB.   Displacement of fragments 20.   Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp   capping? A.   Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure.B.   Removal of caries has exposed the pulpC.   When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ 21.   Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no response to pulp tests you    should? A.   Review again later B.   Start endodontic treatmentC.   Extraction of tooth 22.   What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth? A.   Obtain baseline responseB.   Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality 23.   What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics? A.   Decalcification of dentineB.   Cleaning debris from root canal 24.   Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for     sedation? A.   Patient commonly complain of post operative headacheB.   An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperativelyC.   There is a profound amnesic action and no side affectsD.   Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operativelyE.   As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil 25.   Which of the following is TRUE in regards to high risk patient? A.   0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patientB.   0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patientC.   Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patientD.   Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patientE.   The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present 26.   Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization procedures; what would   you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred:** A.   Use spore test dailyB.   Use indicator strips in each load and colour change tape on each packageC.   Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly   4 D.   Use colour change tape daily and spore test monthlyE.   Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests weekly 27.    A 65 year old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire    shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be   anticipated in the routine dental therapyis: A.   Extreme susceptibility to painB.   Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhageC.   Recurring oral infectionD.   Increased tendency to syncopeE.   Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia 28.   Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by, A.   Bell’s palsyB.   Traumatic bone cystC.   Trigeminal neuralgiaD.   Fracture in the mandible first molar regionE.   Ludwig’s angina 29.   Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a   fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture is most likely to be present    in, A.   Symphysis regionB.   Left body of the mandibleC.   Left sub-condylar regionD.   Right sub-condylar regionE.   sub-condylar region 30.    Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being   assessed for oral surgery are, A.   Elevated temperature and nauseaB.   Palpitations and malaiseC.   Ankle oedema and dyspnoeaD.   Erythema and painE.   Pallor and tremor  31.    A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is   visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of    treatment would youconsider?** A.   Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socketB.   Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosaC.   Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal.D.   Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in thealveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment.E.   Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation. 32.    A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a   maxillary first  permanent molar is best treated by, A.   Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneouslyB.   Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestantsC.   Curettage and dressing of the defectD.   Excision of the fistula and surgical closureE.   Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy. 33.   The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of parotid mass may be   accompanying,
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